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Review University for Nurses

Sample Exam

 


PSYCHE

1. Which ego-defense mechanisms are most prominently used in obsessive-compulsive disorders?
introjection is defined as a psychic representation of a loved or hated object taken into one's ego system; in projection, a person attributes to another ideas, thoughts, feelings, and impulses that are a part of his or her inner perception, but are unacceptable
compensation is a conscious or unconscious defense mechanism by which a person tries to make up for an imagined or real deficiency that is physical, psychologic, or both
displacement of the ego-dystonic idea into an unrelated and senseless activity temporarily lowers the anxiety of the individual. By carrying out the act, the client attempts to undo the uncontrollable impulse. Counting compulsions and rituals are examples of undoing
rationalization is unconscious defense mechanism in which an irrational behavior, motive, or feeling is made to appear reasonable; suppression is a conscious defense mechanism by which a person deliberately forgets those ideas, impulses, and affects that are unacceptable


2. Three of the following conditions are frequently characteristic of the client with anorexia nervosa. Which one is not?
hoarding food
eating only low-calorie foods
napping frequently to conserve energy
abusing laxatives and diuretics


3. Lorazepam (Ativan) is primarily effective in treating which of the following?
hallucinations
delusions
anxiety
incoherent speech


4. In severe, major depression, which of the following defense mechanisms is most prominent?
introjection
projection
sublimation
rationalization


5. The ego-defense mechanism thought to be used by clients with phobic disorders is which of the following?
sublimation
displacement
substitution
suppression


6. Of the following side effects, which one is not expected with nortriptyline (Aventyl) 100 mg daily?
blurred vision
dry mouth
urinary retention
restlessness


7. The most common side effects of ECT include which of the following?
aphasia and gait difficulties
nausea and vomiting
confusion and memory loss
diarrhea and GI distress


8. Which of the following medications is used in conjunction with ECT?
succinylcholine (Anectine) as a muscle relaxant
methohexital (Brevital) as an anesthetic
AtSO4 as an anticholinergic
All of the above


9. The most important advantage a depressed client gains from a group therapy is:
improved social interactions and focus on other's problems
improved reality orientation
greater insights into problems through the concept of universality
greater insight and knowledge of self through feedback provided by group members


10. Dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision are characteristic symptoms of the action of imipramine (Tofranil) on which of the following body systems?
cardiovascular system
endocrine system
autonomic nervous system
respiratory system


11. The therapeutic blood level for lithium therapy is maintained between which of the following?
0.8 and 1.8 mEq/L
2.5 and 3.5 mEq/L
5.0 and 7.5 mg/ml
0.3 and 0.75 mg/ml


12. As part of a teaching plan on lithium carbonate, clients are instructed to have lithium levels determined every 1 to 3 months when they are outpatients. Which statement best describes the reason for this?
lithium carbonate can produce potassium and magnesium depletion
triglyceride levels can increase as the lithium level increases
lithium carbonate in large quantities produces sedation resulting in safety risks
a narrow margin of safety exists between therapeutic and toxic levels of lithium carbonate


13. The initial treatment of a rape survivor can significantly affect the psychologic impact the assault will have on the survivor. The first information elicited from the client should be which of the following?
marital state of the survivor
survivor's perception of what occurred
whether the rapist was known to her
how she feels about having an abortion of she becomes pregnant


14. The initial signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal are:
hypotension, bradycardia, and decreased salivation
fever, dehydration, and convulsions
tremors, nervousness, and diaphroresis
permanent cognitive impairment and ataxia


15. If a client experiences hallucinations during alcohol withdrawal, which would be the most appropriate nursing intervention?
a.a quiet room and PRN benzodiazepine medication
bed rest, soft music, and fluids
hot tea every 2 hours, blood pressure check every 30 minutes, and restraints
ice cream every 2 hours, blood pressure check every 15 minutes, and restraints


16. Select the medication that best helps control hallucinations and delusions:
haloperidol (Haldol)
isocarboxazid (Marplan)
alprazolam (Xanax)
paroxetine (Paxil)


17. Which of the following activities attended by a client with agoraphobia indicates an improvement in the client's condition?
milieu group in the dayroom
occupational therapy in the adjunctive therapy room
recreational therapy on the outside volleyball court
Friday lunch in the hospital cafeteria


18. When planning the initial nursing care plan of a client with obsessive-compulsive handwashing behavior, which of the following should receive the highest priority?
client will maintain a role in the family
client will discontinue the handwashing behavior
client will verbalize major causes of the handwashing behavior
client will reestablish skin integrity


19. A male lawyer has been committed to a psychiatric facility after being diagnosed with schizophrenia. One morning while walking outside with the nurse, the client runs away. The immediate responsibility of the nurse would be to notify the:
Client's psychiatrist of the elopement
Probate judge who committed the client
Client's family that the client has left the hospital
Local law enforcement officers of the client's escape


20. When planning care for a client with severe agoraphobia, the nurse should first:
Determine the client's degree of impairment
Support the client's self-esteem through verbal interactions
Teach the client biofeedback techniques to reduce anxiety
Expose the client gradually to anxiety-provoking situations


21. Although upset by a young client's continuous complaints about all aspects of care, the nurse ignores them and attempts to divert the conversation. Immediately following this exchange, the nurse discusses with a friend the various stages of development of young adults. The defense mechanism the nurse is using is
Substitution
Sublimation
Identification
Intellectualization


22. The best initial approach to take with a self-accusatory, guilt-ridden client would be to:
Contradict the client's persecutory delusions
Accept the client's statements as his beliefs
Medicate the client when these thoughts are expressed
Redirect the client whenever a negative topic is mentioned


23. A client with a bipolar mood disorder, manic phase, had been hyperactive and sarcastic to the nurse and other clients. This behavior has been decreasing and the client tells the nurse, "My husband and I have problems getting along sometimes. We see things differently." The response by the nurse that would be the least therapeutic would be:
"Explain what you mean by seeing things differently."
"Not getting along with one's spouse can be upsetting."
"You are calmer today. What has made the difference?"
"Tell me about a specific time when you and your husband had problems."


24. Some clients repeatedly perform ritualistic behaviors throughout the day to limit anxious feelings. The nurse recognizes that these behaviors are:
Obsessions
Compulsions
Under personal control
Related to rebelliousness


25. The nurse plans to teach a client to use healthier coping behaviors that consciously can be used to reduce anxiety. These include:
Eating, dissociation, fantasy
Sublimation, fantasy, rationalization
Exercise, talking to friends, suppression
Repression, intellectualization, smoking


OBSTETRICS

1. A woman of 38 weeks AOG is experiencing true labor when her contraction pattern shows:
occasional irregular contractions
irregular contractions that increase in intensity
regular contractions that remain the same
regular contractions that increase in frequency and duration


2. The nurse should encourage her gravid patient to void frequency during labor, primarily to:
prevent urinary infections
enhance fetal descent
strengthen the vaginal and perineal muscles
assess urine specimens for albumin


3. The placenta forms from the:
chorionic villi and deciduas vera
chorionic villi and decidua capsularis
deciduas basalis and deciduas vera
chorionic villi and decidua basalis


4. When performing Leopold's maneuvers, which of the following would the nurse ask the client to do to ensure optimal comfort and accuracy?
breathe deeply for one minute
empty her bladder
drink a full glass of water
lie on her left side


5. The nurse instructs a primigravid patient to increase her intake of Magnesium because of its role with which of the following?
prevention of demineralization of the mother's bones
synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids and fats
amino acid metabolism
synthesis of neural pathways in the fetus


6. After instructing a primigravid client about the functions of the placenta, the nurse determines that the client needs additional teaching when she says that which of the following hormones is produced by the placenta:
testosterone
estrogen
progesterone
HcG


7. During a childbirth preparation class, a primigravid client at 36 weeks gestation tells the nurse, "My lower back has really been bothering me lately." Which of the following exercises suggested by the nurse would be most helpful?
pelvic rocking
deep breathing
tailor sitting
squatting


8. What is a common endocrine response to pregnancy?
decrease cortisol levels
decrease production of prolactin
increase plasma parathyroid hormone
increase maternal blood glucose level


9. Combined oral contraceptives prevent pregnancy by inhibiting the production of:
FSH & prolactin
LH & estrogen
FSH & LH
Estrogen and progesterone


10. The nurse should instruct her client to discontinue the oral contraceptive and call the physician immediately if she experiences:
hypomenorrhea
dysmenorrhea
severe headache
leucorrhea


11. Assessment of primigravid client reveals cervical dilatation at 8cm and complete effacement. The client complains of severe back pain during this phase of labor. The nurse explains that the client's severe back pain is most likely caused by the fetal occiput being in a position that is identified as which of the following?
breech
transverse
posterior
anterior


12. While the nurse is caring for a multiparous client in active labor at 37 weeks gestation, the client tells the nurse, "I think my water just broke." Which of the following would the nurse do first?
turn the client on the right side
assess the fetal heart rate pattern
assess the color, amount and odor of fluid
check the client's cervical dilation.


13. The physician orders oxytocin to be added to the IVF of a 26-year old multigravid client at 38 weeks AOG after vaginal delivery. The nurse anticipates administering the oxytocin after delivery of which of the following
first placenta
second placenta
first twin
second twin


14. While making a home visit to a postpartum client on day 10, the nurse would anticipate that the client's lochia would be:
dark red
pink
brown
white


15. Which of the following forms the basis for the teaching plan about avoiding medication use unless prescribed for a primiparous client who is breastfeeding?
breast milk quality and richness are decreased
the mother's motivation to breastfeed is diminished
medications may be excreted in breastmilk to the nursing neonate
medication interfere with the mother's let-down reflex


16. A client is admitted to the hospital with contractions that are about 1-2 minutes apart and last for 60 seconds. Vaginal exam reveals that her cervix is dilated 8cm. The client is in which stage labor?
latent phase
active phase
third stage
transitional phase


17. During the third postpartum day, which of the following would the nurse be most likely to find in the client:
she's interested in learning more about newborn care
she talks a lot about the birth experience
she sleeps whenever the baby isn't present
she requests help in choosing a name for the baby


18. When assessing a client's episiotomy, the nurse should be especially careful to observe:
location
discharge and odor
edema and approximation
subinvolution


19. In performing a routine fundal assessment, the nurse finds that the client's fundus is boggy. The nurse should first:
call the physician
massage the fundus
assess the lochial flow
obtain an order for methelergonovine


20. Which assessment of a woman in labor can be determined by vaginal examination?
fetal weight
cervical dilatation
strength of contraction
fetal head circumference


21. The postovulation rise in BBT is due to the high blood level of which hormone?
FSH
HPL
estrogen
progesterone


22. A pregnant woman's history reveals one pregnancy, terminated by elective abortion at 10 weeks, birth of twins at 37 weeks and a spontaneous abortion at 12 weeks. According to TPAL system, which of the following describes her present parity.
0-2-2-2
2-0-2-2
0-1-2-2
1-0-2-2


23. Which principal factor cause vaginal patient to be acidic?
cervical mucus changes
secretion from skene's glands
the action of doderlein's bacillus
secretions from Bartholin's gland


24. Which normal assessment finding can the nurse expect in the 34th week of pregnancy?
Braxton-Hicks contractions, joint hypermobility and backache
Dysuria, constipation, hemorrhoids and lightening
Feeling of tranquility and heightened introspection
Morning sickness, breast tenderness


25. What are the 2 fetal membranes?
ectoderm and mesoderm
chorion and amnion
chorion and endoderm
amnion and chorionic villi


FUNDA

1. A client has returned to the nursing unit following an abdominal hysterectomy. The client is lying supine. To completely assess the client for postoperative bleeding, the nurse should do which of the following?
Check the abdominal dressing
Check the perineal pad
Ask the client about a sensation of moistness
Roll the client to one side after checking the perineal pad and the abdominal dressing


2. A nurse notes redness, warmth, and a purulent drainage at the insertion site of a central venous catheter in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse notices the physician of this finding because:
Infections of a central catheter site can lead to septicemia
The client is experiencing an allergy to the TPN solution
The TPN solution has infiltrated and must be stopped
The client is allergic to the dressing material covering the site


3. A nurse instructs a client about the procedure to perform the Breast Self-Examination (BSE). Which of the following indicates a need for further instructions?
"I don't need to do that, I'm too old for that."
"I do BSE 7 days after I get my period."
"I examine my breasts in the shower."
"I lie on my back to examine my breasts."


4. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a 2-year-old child. The best site to select for the injection is the:
Ventral gluteal muscle
Dorsal gluteal muscle
Deltoid muscle
Vastus lateralis muscle


5. A client has a pH of 7.51 with a bicarbonate level of 29 mEq/L. The nurse prepares to administer which of the following medications that would be ordered to treat this acid-base disorder?
Sodium bicarbonate
Furosemide (Lasix)
Acetazolamide (Diamox)
Spironolactone (Aldactone)


6. A nurse is caring for a client with a nursing diagnosis of Altered Oral Mucous Membranes. The nurse would avoid using which of the following items when giving mouth care of this client?
Nonalcoholic mouthwash
Soft toothbrush
Lip moistener
Lemon-glycerin swabs


7. A client has a serum sodium level of 129 mEq/L as a result of hypervolemia. The nurse consults with the physician to determine whether which of the following most appropriate measures should be instituted?
Providing a 2-g sodium diet
Providing a 4-g sodium diet
Fluid restriction
Administering intravenous hypertonic saline


8. When administering an intramuscular injection in the gluteal muscle, the nurse places the client in which best position to relax the muscle?
With On their side with the knee of the uppermost leg flexed
On their side with the knee of the lowermost leg flexed
Prone with a toe-in position
Sims' with a toe-in position


9. A nurse plans to administer a medication by IV bolus through the IV primary line. The nurse notes that the medication is incompatible with the primary IV solution. The most appropriate nursing action to safety administer the medication is to:
Call the physician for an order to change to route of the medication
Start a new IV line for the medication
Flush the tubing before and after the medication with normal saline
Flush the tubing before and after the medication with sterile water


10. The nurse suspects the occurrence of an air embolism in a client with a triple lumen catheter. If an air embolism were present, the nurse would likely note which of the following?
Hypertension
Diminished breath sounds
A "churning" sound heard over the right ventricle on auscultation
Rales heard in the lung bases on auscultation


11. In a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, cyanosis, and decreased level of consciousness which complication of TPN?
Bibasilar crackles
Weak pulse
Decreased blood pressure
Flat neck veins with the head of the bed at 45 degree


12. A nurse is caring for a client who has an order to receive an intravenous intralipid infusion. Which of the following actions does the nurse take as part of proper procedure before hanging the infusion?
Add 100 mL of normal saline solution to the bottle
Attach the in-line filter
Remove the bottle from the refrigerator
Check the solution for separation or an oily appearance


13. A nurse has an order to infuse a unit of blood. The nurse checks the client's intravenous line to make sure that the gauge of the intravenous catheter is at least:
14 gauge
19 gauge
22 gauge
24 gauge


14. A client began receiving a unit of blood 30 minutes ago. The client rings the call bell and complains of breathing difficulty, itching, and a tight sensation in the chest. Which of the following is the first action of the nurse?
Recheck the unit of blood for compatibility
Check the client's temperature
Stop the transfusion
Call the physician


15. A home care nurse finds a client in the bedroom, unconscious, with pill bottle in hand. The pill bottle contained the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) sertraline (Zoloft). The nurse immediately assesses the client's:
Blood pressure
Respirations
Pulse
Unrinary output


16. A nurse is checking a unit of blood received from the blood bank and notes the presence of gas bubbles in the bag. The nurse should take which of the following actions?
Add 10 mL of normal saline solution to the bag
Agitate the bag gently to mix contents
Add 100 units of heparin to the bag
Return the bag to the blood bank


17. A nurse is doing a dressing change on a venous stasis ulcer that is clean and has a growing bed of granulation tissue. The nurse avoids using which of the following dressing materials on this would?
Wet-to-dry saline dressing
Wet-to-wet saline dressing
Hydrocolloid dressing
Vaseline gauze dressing


18. A nurse is preparing to suction a client's tracheostomy. To promote deep breathing and coughing, the client should be positioned in the:
Supine position
Lateral position
High-fowler's position
Semi-fowler's position


19. A nurse is giving bed bath for a client who is on strict bed rest. To increase venous return, the nurse bathes the client's extremity by using:
Long firm strokes from distal to proximal areas
Firm circular strokes from proximal to distal areas
Short, patting strokes from distal to proximal areas
Smooth, light strokes back and forth smooth proximal to distal areas


20. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding through a nasogastric tube. The nurse assesses gastric residual before administering the tube feeding to:
a.Confirm proper nasogastric tube placement
Determine patency of the tube
Assess fluid and electrolytes
Evaluate absorption of the last feeding


21. A client is brought into the emergency department after being in a car accident. A neck injury is suspected. The client is unresponsive and pulse less. The nurse opens the client's airway by which method?
Head tilt-chin lift
Lifting the head up, placing the head on two pillows, and attempting ventilate
Jaw-thrust maneuver
Keeping the client flat and grasping the tongue


22. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via central intravenous (IV) line is scheduled to receive an antibiotic by the IV route. Which action by the nurse is appropriate before hanging the antibiotic solution?
Ensure a separate IV access for the antibiotic
Turn off the TPN for 30 minutes before administering the antibiotic
Check with the pharmacy to be sure the antibiotic can be hung through the TPN line
Flush the central line with 60 mL of normal saline solution before hanging the antibiotic


23. A client's nasogastric (NG) feeding tube has become clogged. The nurse's first action is to:
Flush the tube with warm water
Aspirate the tube
Flush with carbonated liquids, such as cola
Replace the tube


24. A nurse has an order to obtain a 24-hour urine collection on a client with a renal urine collection on a client with a renal disorder. The nurse avoids which of the following to ensure proper collection of the 24-hour specimen?
Have the client void at the start time, and place this specimen in the container
Discard the first voiding, save all subsequent voiding during the 24-hour time period
Place the container on ice, or in a refrigerator
Have the client void at the time, and place this medication in the container


25. A nurse suspects that an air embolism has occurred in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central venous catheter when the central line disconnects from the IV tubing. The nurse immediately turns the client to the:
Left side with the head higher than the feet
Right side with the head higher than the feet
Left side with the feet higher than the head
Right side with the feet higher than the head


PEDIA

1. A baby born today at 38 weeks gestation weighs 5 lb 2 oz (2335 g). the nurse should describe the baby as:
A normal newborn
Chronically ill
Low birth weight
Very low birth weight


2. In a neonate at 36 weeks gestation, the nurse would anticipate implementation of nursing care for which disorder?
Acne
Chickenpox
Jaundice
Scoliosis


3. The nurse would clean a neonate with clean water or non alkaline cleanser two or three per week because:
Cleaning stimulates circulation
Growth of bacteria is minimized
Oils provide nourishment to tissues
Regular cleansing prevents irritation


4. If a neonate develops respiratory distress syndrome the nurse should include as an evaluation outcome:
Neonates breathes without effort
Neonates recover from surgery uneventfully
Family seeks genetic counseling
Others do not contract disease


5. A 2 years old infant is diagnosed with severe croup (laryngotracheobronchitis). The nurse caring for this child identifies essential therapeutic measures as being hospitalization and:
Corticosteroid
Cool humidification
Intubation
Whirlpool bath


6. When a nurse observes sign and symptoms of child neglect, appropriate action includes which of the following?
Ensure involvement of variety caregivers
Oppose parental decision-making
Promote a trusting relationship
Provide extra stimulation


7. A 6 years old child is admitted to the pediatric unit with partial and full thickness third degree burns. From this information the nurse can plan burn care that affects:
Dermis only
Epidermis only
All layers of skin
All layers of skin, subcutaneous tissues and muscles


8. Nursing care for child with a third degree burn on the body would focus on:
Encouraging mobility
Helping the child to scratch the wound
Limiting fluid intake
Removing crust and eschar


9. A 10-year-old child broke her left leg and the whole end of the bone protrudes through the skin. The nurse understand this fracture to be:
Compound
Greenstick
Incomplete
Simple


10. A 14-year-old adolescent has a new diagnosis of diabetes. The nurse would expect this to be:
Glucose intolerance
Insulin dependent diabetes
Maturity onset diabetes
Plain diabetes


11. Sign and symptoms of ketoacidosis that the nurse would teach a diabetic with a new diagnosis of diabetes would include:
Glucose in urine
Headache
Low blood sugar
Thirst


12. A teenage girl is admitted to the adolescent unit with a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. The nurse determines that the adolescent has a typical sign of this disease when which of the following is noted?
Cool, dry skin
Frequent urination
Large bulky foul smelling stool
Poor appetite


13. The nurse knows that the primary cause of the serious pulmonary problems that children with cystic fibrosis can develop is:
Bronchial constriction
Inadequate surfactant
Pulmonic stenosis
Thick tenacious mucus


14. If pancreatic enzymes are prescribed for a child with cystic fibrosis, the nurse should administer these by which route?
Intramuscularly
Intravenously
Orally
Intradermally


15. The nurse promotes exercise in an adolescent with cystic fibrosis because it is therapeutically important to help promote a sense of well being and to:
Aid digestion and absorption of nutrients
Enhance heart muscle and muscular tone
Promote mobilization of lung secretion
Stimulate exocrine gland secretions


16. A child with cystic fibrosis may be treated with a mist tent at home. The nurse would want the family to identify the reason for the mist to help:
Dilate alveoli
Minimize secretions
Prevent dehydration
Relieve dyspnea


17. Postural drainage is prescribed for home care. The family and child need to learn about the therapy and all positions for treatments. The nurse would teach the family and child which position to help move secretions from the right lower lobes.
Lying on back with head lowered
Lying on the left side with head lowered
Lying on the left with head raised
Sitting with left knee bent


18. As a nurse you know that the child with cystic fibrosis must learn to avoid:
Dog and cat hair
Bacterial infections
Sodium chloride
Ultraviolet light


19. A child is admitted with bronchial asthma. The respiratory sign that the nurse would expect to see includes:
Sleep apnea
Inspiratory stridor
Productive cough
Prolonged expiration


20. In the management of an episode of acute asthma, the nurse would not expect to include:
Antibiotics
Antiemetics
Corticosteroids
Bronchodilators


21. The nurse knows that which of the following is frequently associated with myelomeningoceles?
Hydrocephalus
Intussusceptions
Mental retardation
Pneumonia


22. A mother brings her 2-year-old child to the clinic. The child is drooling, agitated, and appears to be in respiratory distress. The pediatrician suspects epiglottis. Which action of the nurse is best?
Allow the mother to hold the child
Insist that the mother leave the examination room
Give the child cool fruit to drink
Obtain a throat culture


23. The nurse explains to the mother that the usual cause of epiglottis is:
B haemolytic streptococcus
Haemophillus influenaza
Respiratory synctial virus
Staphylococcus aureus


24. An infant is being admitted for cleft lip repair tomorrow morning. The nurse collecting data from the mother will expect to obtain information about:
Drooling
Noisy respiration
Sucking problems
Swallowing difficulty


25. During the first 24 hours postoperatively after a cleft lip repair, the nurse would:
Apply elbow restraints to the infant
Position the infant prone
Keep the infant upright in an infant seat
Use a mist tent to facilitate the infants breathing


SAMPLE INTEGRATED EXAMS

1. When the fetal position is LOA, the point of maximum intensity of the FHR would be located in the ______ quadrant of the maternal abdomen.
Left Upper
Right Upper
Left Lower
Right Lower


2. Which of the following arteries primarily feeds the anterior wall of the heart?
Circumflex artery
Internal mammary artery
Left anterior descending artery
Right coronary artery


3. Ms. C is admitted to the hospital with a bleeding ulcer. She is to receive 4 units of packed cells. Which nursing intervention is of primary importance in the administration of blood?
Checking the flow rate
Monitoring the vital signs
Identifying the client
Maintaining blood temperature


4. Systemic lupus erythematous (SLE) primarily attacks which of the following tissues?
Connective
Heart
Lungs
Nerve


5. Which of the following terms is used to describe a thrombus lodged in the lungs?
Hemothorax
Pneumothorax
Pulmonary embolism
Pulmonary hypertension


6. An adult client has just returned to his room following a bowel resection & end to end anastomosis. The nurse can expect the drainage from the NGT in the early post – op period to be:
Clear
Mucoid
Scant
Discolored


7. Which of the following oral medications is administered to prevent further thrombus formation?
Warfarin
Heparin
Furosemide (Lasix)
Metoprolol (Lopressor)


8. Which of the following tests is the major diagnostic test for ulcers?
Abdominal X-ray
Barium swallow
Computed tomography scan
Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)


9. A child diagnosed with meningitis is restless & irritable when first hospitalized. To promote the child's comfort, which of these actions should the nurse take initially?
Discourage the parents from staying with the child
Keep environmental noise to a minimum
Position the child in a supine position for 12 hours
Postpone all scheduled testing


10. A child is admitted to the pediatric unit for seizure activity. The physician orders Phenobarbital. The nurse provides the parents with instructions regarding the correct administration of this medication. The nurse would evaluate as effective when the parent identify the need to:
Skip dose if child vomits
Discontinue the medication when seizure activity stops
Double the next dose if the child misses a dose
Notify the physician if severe headache & skin rash


11. Which of the following fracture is classic for occurring from trauma?
Brachial and clavicle
Brachial and humerus
Humerus and clavicle
Occipital and humerus


12. A woman who has had rheumatoid arthritis for several years is admitted to the hospital. Upon physical examination of the client, the nurse should expect to find:
Asymmetric joint involvement
Heberden's nodes
Obesity
Small joint involvement


13. Which of the following definitions best describes diverticulosis?
An inflamed out pouching of the intestine
A noninflamed out pouching of the intestine
The partial impairment of the forward flow of intestinal contents
An abnormal protrusion of an organ through the structure that usually holds it


14. Which of the following symptoms indicate diverticulosis?
No symptoms exist
Change in bowel habits
Anorexia and low-grade fever
Episodic, dull or steady midabdominal pain


15. What tests should be ordered if hypothyroidism is suspected?
Liver function tests
Hemoglobin A1C
T4 and thyroid-stimulating hormone
24-hour urine free cortisol measurement


16. A client is being admitted to the antepartum unit for hypovolemia secondary to hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following factors predispose to the development of this condition?
Trophoblastic disease
Maternal age older than 35 years
Malnourished or underweight clients
Low levels of human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG)


17. When giving a postpartum client self-care instructions, the nurse instructs her to report heavy or excessive bleeding. Which of the following would indicate heavy bleeding?
Saturating a pad in 15 minutes
Saturating a pad in 1 hour
Saturating 1 pad in 4 – 6 hours
Saturating a pad in 8 hours


18. When providing information about treatments for diabetes insipidus to parents, a nurse explains the use of nasal spray and injections. Which of the following indications might deter a parent from choosing nasal spray treatment?
Applications must be repeated every 8 to 12 hours
Applications must be repeated every 2 to 4 hours
Nasal sprays can't be used in infants
Measurements are too difficult


19. The discovery of hypospadias is usually made by which of the following people?
By the primary health care provider when doing a neonatal assessment
By the primary health care provider, just before circumcision
By the mother when she sees her neonate for the first time
By the nurse doing the neonatal assessment


20. Statistics about sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) may not be reliable for which of the following reasons?
Most adolescents seek out treatment for their STD
Adolescents are usually honest with their parents about their sexual behavior
All sexually transmitted diseases must be reported to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
Chlamydial infections and human papillomavirus (HPV) infections aren't required to be reported to the CDC


21. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with multiple myeloma. The nurse should include which priority intervention in the plan of care?
Coughing & deep breathing
Forcing fluids
Monitoring CBC count
Providing frequent oral care


22. A client diagnosed a having bowel tumor. Several diagnostic tests are prescribed. A nurse understands that which of the following tests will confirm the diagnosis of malignancy?
MRI
CT scan
Abdominal ultrasound
Biopsy of tumor


23. The client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy & develops thrombocytopenia. A nurse identifies which intervention as the highest priority in the nursing plan of care?
Ambulation 3 times daily
Monitoring temperature
Monitoring platelet count
Monitoring for pathological fractures


24. To help meet a patient's self-esteem needs, the nurse should:
Encourage the patient to perform self care when able
Suggest that the family visit the patient more often
Anticipate needs before the patient requests help
Assist the patient with bathing & grooming


25. To meet a patient's physical needs, the nurse should:
Pull the curtain when providing care
Answer the call bell immediately
Administer physical hygiene
Obtain vital signs




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